a question that keeps arising in this mind o' mine:
if Shakespeare lived in England
why did he say "rough winds do shake the darling buds of May" in that favored sonnet
instead of the darling buds of March?
because these buds are budding,
or perhaps he had a certain bud in mind
like a later sort--roses?
or perhaps global warming since 1600ish to 2010
has shifted England's budding-time from May to March?
or perhaps he was scripting it for a woman from the mountains who wouldn't see buds until May?
or perhaps he was just tired of figuring out what rhymed with "How shall I compare thee to a summer's day?" and so went with May?
anyhow one of the points of all of this silliness was really just to show you how lovely the buds of March are in England right this moment.